Automatic Flight
III of XVIII
Q 01: The
Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:
A: Navigation, flight planning and A/THR
commands.
B: Performance optimization, A/THR and AP
commands
C:
Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions
D: AP and FD commands and flight envelope
computation.
Q 02: How
can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?
A: Present position can be entered through
the ADIRS CDU.
B: Present position can be entered on the
INIT page of the MCDU.
C:
Both are correct.
Q 03: What
are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?
A:
The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard.
B: The PFD should be inboard and the ND
should be outboard.
C: The PFD should be to the left of the ND
for both seat positions.
D: The PFD should be inboard and the ND
should be inboard.
Q 04: What
information is supplied by the IR’s and displayed on the PFD?
A: Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.
B:
Heading, altitude, and vertical speed
C: Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical
speed.
D: Heading, attitude, and altitude.
Q 05: How
long does a normal IR alignment take?
A: Approximately 3 minutes.
B: Approximately 6 minutes.
C:
Approximately 10 minutes.
D: Approximately 13 minutes.
Q 06: The IR
ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?
A:
Alignment has been completed.
B: Air data output has been disconnected.
C: The respective IR is operating normally.
Q 07: An
amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:
A: Present position needs to be reentered.
B:
Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.
C: A complete failure of the respective IR
has occurred.
Q 08: What
action should be taken if IR #2 is lost:
A: Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to
F/O 3.
B: Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to
CAPT 3.
C:
Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3.
D: Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to
F/O 1.
Q 09: A/THR
in white means that A/THR is:
A: Disconnected.
B: Armed.
C:
Active
Q 10: The
white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?
A: No present position has been entered and
ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON.
B: No
present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was
selected ON. An alignment fault may exist.
C: Attitude and heading information have
been lost. An alignment fault may exist.
Q 11: What
message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock
date?
A:
Check Data Base Cycle.
B: Check Data Base Date.
C: Check Effective Date.
D: Check the changeover date.
Q 12:
Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?
A:
The OFF light will illuminate and air data output will disconnect.
B: The respective ADIRU will become
deenergized.
C: Both AD and IR information will be
disconnected.
D: All of the above.
Q 13: While
in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the
Alpha prot range:
A: The flight controls revert to direct law.
B: The flight controls remain in the load
factor demand law.
C:
The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side
stick deflection is proportional to AOA.
Q 14: What
is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?
A: 1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off.
B: 1
off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop.
Q 15: What
does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?
A: FMGC 1 & 2 position difference
exceeds limits.
B:
FMGC position & actual radio position difference exceeds limits.
C: FMCG position & IR position
difference exceeds limits.
Q 16: The
thrust delivered by A/THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to
obtain some additional thrust?
A: Yes, by setting a higher speed target.
B:
Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.
C: No, because the A/THR already delivers
the maximum available thrust.
Q 17: What
information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the
PFD’s?
A: Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.
B:
Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.
C: Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.
D: Airspeed, attitude, altitude, and
vertical speed.
Q 18: Can
the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?
A:
Yes.
B: No.
Q 19: During
the takeoff phase:
A:
SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed
reference
B: SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft.
C: SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is
selected.
Q 20: If the
IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:
A: AD and IR information will be
disconnected.
B: AD information will be disconnected.
C: IR information will be disconnected.
D:
The ADIRU is not energized: AD and IR information is lost.
Q 21: Which
of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?
A:
Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law.
B: Extending the landing gear will place the
aircraft in Mechanical backup law.
C: Extending the landing gear will place the
aircraft in Mechanical backup law.
Q 22: Which
protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?
A: Pitch attitude.
B: Vls.
C: ALPHA SPD (alpha speed)
D:
Alpha floor.
Q 23: What
does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on lower ECAM?
A: Speed brakes have a fault.
B: Speed brakes are extended and flap handle
is not at 0.
C:
Speed brakes are extended and engines are not at idle.
D: All of the above.
Q 24: If LOW
ACCURACY message is displayed, are there any approach restrictions?
A: No
B: Yes, ILS approach only.
C:
Yes, both LNAV and VNAV approaches are forbidden.
Q 25: The
DDRMI provides the pilot with:
A: Bearing only for VOR 1.
B: Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and
ADF 1.
C: Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and
ADF 2.
D:
Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.
Q 26: The ON
BAT light will illuminate amber:
A: When one or more IR’s are operating on
aircraft battery power.
B: For a few seconds at the beginning of the
alignment process.
C:
Both are correct.
Q 27: If
both ELACs fail, what controls the elevator and stabilizer?
A: FACs.
B:
SECs.
C: Elevator and stabilizer revert to
mechanical backup.
D: Backup mode of ELAC’s
Q 28: Where
is the information displayed by DMC #1 and DMC #2?
A: DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #2, ND #2 and
LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM.
B: ADMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1
and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and UPPER ECAM.
C:
DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for
PFD #2, ND #2, and LOWER ECAM.
D: DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1 and
LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and LOWER ECAM.
Q 29: While
in flight operating in Normal law,
movement of the sidestick and subsequent return to neutral will command:
A:
A load factor proportional to stick
deflection, then maintain one G flight
corrected for pitch attitude.
B: Control surface movements proportional to
stick deflection, then return the aircraft to straight and level flight.
C: Control surface movements proportional to
stick deflection, disconnect auto trim, and maintain its current attitude.
Q 30: In
normal law all protections are active, which of the following lists is the most
complete list?
A: Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude,
High AOA, and High speed.
B:
Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Alpha floor, angle of bank,
and High speed.
C: Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude,
High AOA, Vls, Alpha floor, and High speed.
D: Protections, Load Factor and Pitch
attitude.
Q 31: When
in alternate law, all protections except _______ protection will be lost.
A: Roll attitude.
B:Pitch attitude.
C: Bank angle.
D:
Load factor.
Q 32: When
does the sideslip indicator change to a blue Beta target?
A: Flaps configuration 1.
B:
Any EPR exceeds 1.25, and EPR’s differ by more than 0.30
C: Heading differs from track by 20 deg or
more
D: Flaps configuration 1, 2.
Q 33: High
and low speed stabilities may be available in alternate law, stabilities:
A: Will not allow the pilot to stall the
aircraft.
B: Prohibit steep bank angles.
C: Prohibit steep climb angles and bank
angles.
D:
Can be overridden by the pilot, and it is possible to exceed Vmo, Mmo and stall
the aircraft.
Q 34: What
is the function of the FACs?
A: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight
envelope and speed computations
B: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs
C: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs and windshear
protection
D:
Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations, and
windshear protection
Q 35: What
causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?
A: The circuit breaker for that particular
DU has popped.
B:
DMC failure.
C: No power.
Q 36: If the
LOWER ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?
A: Pressing and holding the related systems
page pb on the ECAM control panel; the
page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM.
B: Rotating the ECAM/ND XFER switch, the
LOWER ECAM page will be transferred to either the Captain or First
Officer’s BND.
C:
Both are correct.
Q 37: Can
the aircraft be controlled with a loss of all electrics?
A:
Yes.
B: No.
Q 38: The
ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position
indicate that: A: ADIRU 1 is supplying
information to PFD 1 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND
1.
B:
ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1, ND 1 and the DDRMI; ADIRU 2 is
supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 2.
Q 39: What
action should be taken if ADR #1 is lost?
A: Nothing.
B: Move the ATT HDG knob on the switching
panel to CAPT 3.
C:
Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.
Q 40: How
many Air Data/Inertial Reference Units (ADIRU’s) are installed?
A: One
B: Two
C:
Three
D: Four
Q 41: On an
autoland approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master?
A:
FMGC 1
B: FMGC 2
C: Both
Q 42: After
a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?
A: Once a DMC has failed the information is
unrecoverable
B: No action is needed as recovery is
automatic.
C:
Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3.
