Question Bank - Airbus A320

Automatic Flight

III of XVIII

Q 01: The Flight Management part of the FMGC includes the following elements:

A: Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands.

B: Performance optimization, A/THR and AP commands

C: Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions

D: AP and FD commands and flight envelope computation.

Q 02: How can the present position of the aircraft be initialized?

A: Present position can be entered through the ADIRS CDU.

B: Present position can be entered on the INIT page of the MCDU.

C: Both are correct.

Q 03: What are the correct positions for the PFD and ND?

A: The PFD should be outboard and the ND should be inboard.

B: The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be outboard.

C: The PFD should be to the left of the ND for both seat positions.

D: The PFD should be inboard and the ND should be inboard.

Q 04: What information is supplied by the IR’s and displayed on the PFD?

A: Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

B: Heading, altitude, and vertical speed

C: Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

D: Heading, attitude, and altitude.

Q 05: How long does a normal IR alignment take?

A: Approximately 3 minutes.

B: Approximately 6 minutes.

C: Approximately 10 minutes.

D: Approximately 13 minutes.

Q 06: The IR ALIGN light is extinguished. What does this mean?

A: Alignment has been completed.

B: Air data output has been disconnected.

C: The respective IR is operating normally.

Q 07: An amber flashing IR FAULT light indicates that:

A: Present position needs to be reentered.

B: Attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode.

C: A complete failure of the respective IR has occurred.

Q 08: What action should be taken if IR #2 is lost:

A: Move the EIS DMC rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

B: Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to CAPT 3.

C: Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 3.

D: Move the ATT HDG rotary selector knob to F/O 1.

Q 09: A/THR in white means that A/THR is:

A: Disconnected.

B: Armed.

C: Active

Q 10: The white IR ALIGN light is flashing. What does this mean?

A: No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON.

B: No present position has been entered and ten minutes has elapsed since the IR was selected ON. An alignment fault may exist.

C: Attitude and heading information have been lost. An alignment fault may exist.

Q 11: What message is displayed if the database effective date does not match the clock date?

A: Check Data Base Cycle.

B: Check Data Base Date.

C: Check Effective Date.

D: Check the changeover date.

Q 12: Placing one of the ADR push buttons OFF will accomplish what?

A: The OFF light will illuminate and air data output will disconnect.

B: The respective ADIRU will become deenergized.

C: Both AD and IR information will be disconnected.

D: All of the above.

Q 13: While in-flight, operating in Normal law, in the  Alpha prot range:

A: The flight controls revert to direct law.

B: The flight controls remain in the load factor demand law.

C: The sidestick controller and flight controls revert to the AOA mode, and side stick deflection is proportional to AOA.

Q 14: What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

A: 1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off.

B: 1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop.

Q 15: What does the LOW ACCURACY message mean?

A: FMGC 1 & 2 position difference exceeds limits.

B: FMGC position & actual radio position difference exceeds limits.

C: FMCG position & IR position difference exceeds limits.

Q 16: The thrust delivered by A/THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?

A: Yes, by setting a higher speed target.

B: Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.

C: No, because the A/THR already delivers the maximum available thrust.

Q 17: What information is supplied by the Air Data Modules (ADMs) and displayed on the PFD’s?

A: Heading, attitude, and vertical speed.

B: Airspeed, altitude, and backup vertical speed.

C: Airspeed, vertical speed, and altitude.

D: Airspeed, attitude, altitude, and vertical speed.

Q 18: Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?

A: Yes.

B: No.

Q 19: During the takeoff phase:

A: SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference

B: SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft.

C: SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is selected.

Q 20: If the IR mode rotary selector is selected OFF:

A: AD and IR information will be disconnected.

B: AD information will be disconnected.

C: IR information will be disconnected.

D: The ADIRU is not energized: AD and IR information is lost.

Q 21: Which of the following statements is always true when operating in alternate law?

A: Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Direct law.

B: Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.

C: Extending the landing gear will place the aircraft in Mechanical backup law.

Q 22: Which protection is not available below 100 feet AGL?

A: Pitch attitude.

B: Vls.

C: ALPHA SPD (alpha speed)

D: Alpha floor.

Q 23: What does amber SPEED BRAKES mean on lower ECAM?

A: Speed brakes have a fault.

B: Speed brakes are extended and flap handle is not at 0.

C: Speed brakes are extended and engines are not at idle.

D: All of the above.

Q 24: If LOW ACCURACY message is displayed, are there any approach restrictions?

A: No

B: Yes, ILS approach only.

C: Yes, both LNAV and VNAV approaches are forbidden.

Q 25: The DDRMI provides the pilot with:

A: Bearing only for VOR 1.

B: Bearing and DME information for VOR 1 and ADF 1.

C: Bearing and DME information for VOR 2 and ADF 2.

D: Bearing only for VOR 1 and VOR 2.

Q 26: The ON BAT light will illuminate amber:

A: When one or more IR’s are operating on aircraft battery power.

B: For a few seconds at the beginning of the alignment process.

C: Both are correct.

Q 27: If both ELACs fail, what controls the elevator and stabilizer?

A: FACs.

B: SECs.

C: Elevator and stabilizer revert to mechanical backup.

D: Backup mode of ELAC’s

Q 28: Where is the information displayed by DMC #1 and DMC #2?

A: DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #2, ND #2 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM.

B: ADMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and UPPER ECAM.

C: DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1, and UPPER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and LOWER ECAM.

D: DMC #1 supplies data to PFD #1, ND #1 and LOWER ECAM. DMC #2 supplies data for PFD #2, ND #2, and LOWER ECAM.

Q 29: While in flight operating in Normal law,  movement of the sidestick and subsequent return to neutral will command:

A: A  load factor proportional to stick deflection,  then maintain one G flight corrected for pitch  attitude.

B: Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, then return the aircraft to straight and level flight.

C: Control surface movements proportional to stick deflection, disconnect auto trim, and maintain its current attitude.

Q 30: In normal law all protections are active, which of the following lists is the most complete list?

A: Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, and High speed.

B: Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Alpha floor, angle of bank, and High speed.

C: Protections, Load Factor, Pitch attitude, High AOA, Vls, Alpha floor, and High speed.

D: Protections, Load Factor and Pitch attitude.

Q 31: When in alternate law, all protections except _______ protection will be lost.

A: Roll attitude.

B:Pitch attitude.

C: Bank angle.

D: Load factor.

Q 32: When does the sideslip indicator change to a blue Beta target?

A: Flaps configuration 1.

B: Any EPR exceeds 1.25, and EPR’s differ by more than 0.30

C: Heading differs from track by 20 deg or more

D: Flaps configuration 1, 2.

Q 33: High and low speed stabilities may be available in alternate law, stabilities:

A: Will not allow the pilot to stall the aircraft.

B: Prohibit steep bank angles.

C: Prohibit steep climb angles and bank angles.

D: Can be overridden by the pilot, and it is possible to exceed Vmo, Mmo and stall the aircraft.

Q 34: What is the function of the FACs?

A: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations

B: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs

C: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs and windshear protection

D: Rudder and Yaw damping inputs, Flight envelope and speed computations, and windshear protection

Q 35: What causes a DU to display a black screen with a white diagonal line?

A: The circuit breaker for that particular DU has popped.

B: DMC failure.

C: No power.

Q 36: If the LOWER ECAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?

A: Pressing and holding the related systems page  pb on the ECAM control panel; the page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM.

B: Rotating the ECAM/ND XFER switch, the LOWER ECAM page will be transferred to either the Captain or First Officer’s  BND.

C: Both are correct.

Q 37: Can the aircraft be controlled with a loss of all electrics?

A: Yes.

B: No.

Q 38: The ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors on the switching panel in the NORM position indicate that: A: ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1 and ND 2, and ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 1.

B: ADIRU 1 is supplying information to PFD 1, ND 1 and the DDRMI; ADIRU 2 is supplying power to PFD 2 and ND 2.

Q 39: What action should be taken if ADR #1 is lost?

A: Nothing.

B: Move the ATT HDG knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

C: Move the AIR DATA knob on the switching panel to CAPT 3.

Q 40: How many Air Data/Inertial Reference Units (ADIRU’s) are installed?

A: One

B: Two

C: Three

D: Four

Q 41: On an autoland approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master?

A: FMGC 1

B: FMGC 2

C: Both

Q 42: After a single DMC failure, how could a crewmember recover the display units?

A: Once a DMC has failed the information is unrecoverable

B: No action is needed as recovery is automatic.

C: Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel  to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3.