Question Bank - Airbus A320

Flight Controls

X of XVIII

Q 01: The flight control surfaces are _______ controlled and _______ actuated.

A: Electrically / hydraulically

B: Mechanically / hydraulically

C: Electrically / electrically

Q 02: What computer normally commands the operation of the elevators and horizontal stabilizer?

A: SEC 1

B: FAC 1

C: ELAC 2

Q 03: Sidesticks provide electrical signals to the flight control computers; if both sidesticks are operated:

A: The inputs cancel each other.

B: Both inputs are algebraically added.

C: The F/O input is overridden by the CAP input.

Q 04: Roll control is achieved by:

A: Ailerons

B: Ailerons and rudder.

C: One aileron and four spoilers on each wing.

D: Ailerons, rudder and spoilers

Q 05: When the flaps are extended, the ailerons:

A: Go to the centering mode.

B: Pitch up 5 degrees.

C: Droop 5 degrees.

Q 06: If electrical power to a SEC fails:

A: The affected spoilers automatically retract.

B: All spoilers automatically retract.

C: The affected spoilers remains in the last commanded position.

Q 07: If angle of attack protection is active or flaps are in the configuration Full:

A: Speed brake extension is inhibited.

B: Aileron travel is reduced.

C: Speed brake extension travel is reduced.

Q 08: Should the active elevator actuator fail, elevator control is:

A: Lost.

B: Maintained by the other actuator.

C: Reduced.

Q 09: Two control surfaces that have mechanical backup are:

A: Elevator and rudder.

B: Horizontal stabilizer and rudder.

C: Speed brakes and rudder.

Q 10: Horizontal stabilizer trim automatically resets to zero degrees after landing.

A: True

B: False

Q 11: Should both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after the ______ are extended.

A: Flaps

B: Slats

C: Gear

Q 12: Automatic rudder trim is provided at the rate of _____ while the manual rudder trim rate is ______ up to a maximum of ______.

A: 5 deg/sec - 2 deg/sec - 20 degs

B: 5 deg/sec - 1 deg/sec - 20 degs

C: 8 deg/sec - 2 deg/sec - 10 degs

D: 8 deg/sec - 5 deg/sec - 10 degs

Q 13: Four hydraulically-operated wing tip brakes are installed to lock the flaps or slats in case of:

A: Asymmetry and overspeed only

B: Asymmetry, overspeed and slow movement

C: Asymmetry, overspeed, symmetrical runaway and uncommanded movement

D: All of the above

Q 14: While on the ground in Roll Normal Law there is a direct relationship between sidestick deflection and the corresponding aileron and spoiler deflection.

A: True

B: False

Q 15: In Pitch Normal Law Flight Mode; pitch trim is:

A: Manual without the autopilot engaged.

B: Automatic as long as the autopilot is engaged.

C: Automatic with or without the autopilot engaged.

Q 16: Automatic pitch trim is inhibited when:

A: Radio altitude is below 50 feet (100 feet with autopilot coupled).

B: Bank angle is greater than 33 degrees.

C: Load factor is less than 1G.

D: First two statements are correct

Q 17: In pitch normal law, the elevator control changes from the normal mode to a protection mode when the angle of attack is greater than:

A: Alpha Max

B:Alpha Prot

C: Alpha Floor

Q 18: TOGA thrust is provided regardless of throttle position when _______ engages the autothrottle system.

A: Alpha Max

B: Alpha Prot

C: Alpha Floor

Q 19: Roll control in NORMAL LAW is achieved with:

A: Ailerons and spoilers.

B: Ailerons, spoilers and rudder.

C: Ailerons, spoilers 2-5 and rudder.

Q 20: The purpose of the Load Alleviation Function is to:

A: Relieve wing structure loads by moving the ailerons.

B: Relieve wing structure loads by extending spoilers 4 and 5.

C: Help slow the airplane down.

D: First two statements are correct.

Q 21: With the aircraft in Pitch Alternate Law, roll is in _____ Law.

A: Direct

B: Normal

C: Alternate

Q 22: When the landing gear is extended, pitch alternate law:

A: Remains the same.

B: Degrades to pitch direct law.

C: Degrades to pitch backup law.

Q 23: In Pitch Alternate Law; the low Speed stability (nose down command) can be overridden by the sidestick.

A: True

B: False

Q 24: In the event of a complete loss of electrical flight control signals, the airplane reverts to a _______ mode.

A: Mechanical

B: Alternate Law

C: Alternate law

D: Abnormal Attitude law

Q 25: To select speed brakes inflight:

A: Push down on the speed brake handle and move it forward.

B: Push down on the speed brake handle and move it aft.

C: Pull up on the speed brake handle and move it aft.

Q 26: Which of the following statements is correct concerning the spoiler elevator computers (SEC’s)?

A: Two computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control.

B: Three computers which achieve spoiler control and normal elevator and THS control.

C: Three computers which achieve spoiler control and standby elevator and THS control.

Q 27: The autopilot will disconnect if the side stick takeover push button is depressed.

A: True.

B: False

Q 28: Which of the following statements are correct concerning the side stick takeover push button?

A: The last pilot to depress the push button has priority.

B: If the a takeover push button is depressed for more than 40 seconds, the onside system will retain priority after the push button is released.

C: Both are correct.

Q 29: Are there any control surfaces with a mechanical backup?

A: Yes, the ailerons.

B: Yes, the spoilers

C: Yes, the THS and the rudder.

D: No, there aren’t any control surfaces with mechanical backup.

Q 30: What control surfaces do the FACs control?

A: The elevators.

B: The spoilers.

C: The rudder.

D: All of the above.

Q 31: Which of the following will automatically reset after landing?

A: THS.

B: Rudder trim.

C: Both are correct.

Q 32: What happens in the event of an single ELAC failure?

A: ELAC functions are transferred the SEC’s.

B: ELAC functions are transferred to FAC’s.

C: SEC functions are transferred the ELAC’s.

D: The functions of the failed ELAC will be assumed by the remaining ELAC.

Q 33: The alpha speed lock function:

A: Will inhibit flap retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds.

B: Will inhibit slat retraction during an inadvertent movement of the flap selector at high AOA or low speeds.

C: Automatically raises the flaps if retraction has not been accomplished by 210kts.

Q 34: In normal law, if one stick is rapidly pulled fully back, can the aircraft’s maximum allowable “G” load be exceeded?

A: 'Yes. Rapid side stick deflection must never be made.

B: Yes, until maximum pitch attitude is reached.

C: No. At Maximum “G” load, the side sticks are de-activated for 5 seconds.

D: No. The load factor limitation overrides side stick commands to avoid excessive “G” loads.

Q 35: Which controls are used for the mechanical backup?

A: Ailerons and rudder.

B: THS and rudder.

C: Elevators and airlerons.

D: THS and elevator.

Q 36: Mechanically backed-up control surfaces:

A: Require hydraulic power for actuation.

B: Are mechanically connected to the cockpit controls.

C: Both are correct.

Q 37: Selection of flaps one prior to takeoff will select which of the following?

A: Slats 1 and flaps 1 (1+F).

B: Slats 0 and flaps 1 (0+F).

C: Slats 1 and flaps 0 (1).

D: Slats 1 and flaps 5 (1).

Q 38: Which of the following statements best describes the Load Alleviation function(LAF)?

A: Helps the pilot control the airplane.

B: Relieves wing structure loads by deflecting the  ailerons and spoilers.

C; Relieve wing structure loads by deflecting only  the spoilers.

D: Relieves wing structure loads by deflecting the  ailerons.

Q 39: When ground spoilers deploy automatically:

A: All ten spoiler panels fully deploy.

B: Four spoiler panels on each wing deploy.

C: All ten spoiler panels deploy half way.

D: Six spoiler panels on each wing deploy.

Q 40: The FAC’s primarily control which control surface?

A: Elevator.

B: Rudder.

C: Aileron.

D: Elevator and aileron.

Q 41: Which altitude limitation is associated with high lift devices?

A: Max altitude for extension is 20, 000 ft.

B: Max altitude for extension is 22, 000 ft.

C: Max altitude for extension is 25, 000 ft

D: Max altitude for extension is 27, 000 ft.

Q 42: The message WING TIP BRK ON appears on the E/WD. What does it mean?

A: A hydraulic device locks the flaps in their present position.

B: To reduce structural stress, the slats movement is being slowed down through the wing tip brakes.

C: To avoid asymmetry, the outer slats are locked in their present position.

D: Because of the locked flaps, the wing tip brakes also lock the slats.

Q 43: Where does the SFCCs obtain AOA and air data information from?

A: SEC

B: ELAC

C: ADIRU

D: ADC

Q 44: How many actuators are provided to control the ailerons and how many hydraulic sources supply these actuators?

A: 2 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators.

B: 1 hydraulic source with 2 actuators.

C: 4 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators.

D: 3 hydraulic sources with 4 actuators.

Q 45: If both FAC’s fail, what happens to the rudder limiter?

A: It immediately assumes the low speed position.

B: It freezes at its present position and assumes the low speed position when flaps 1 are selected.

C: Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after slats extended.

D: Maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after flaps extended.

*Note: FCOM Says – “If both FACs fail, full rudder deflection is available, when the slats are extended”

Q 46: Which of the following statements is correct concerning the elevator aileron computers (ELAC’s)?:

A: Three computers which achieve normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control.

B: Two computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators, ailerons, and trimmable horizontal stabilizer.

C: Three computers which achieve normal and standby control of the elevators, ailerons, and THS.

D: Two computers which achieve normal elevator, stabilizer, and aileron control.

Q 47: The wing tip brakes, once activated:

A: Lock both the slats and flaps in their current position

B: Lock only the flaps in their current position.

C: Lock only the slats in their current position.

D: Lock only the affected high lift system surfaces in their current position,,

Q 48: Which of the following controls and monitors flaps and slats?

A: Two ELAC’s.

B: Wing tip brakes.

C: One slat flap control computer (SFCC).

D: Two slat flap control computers (SFCC’s).

Q 49: The spoiler panels are the only flight control surfaces with no redundant control.

A: True.

B: False.

Q 50: What happens in the side stick-neutral high speed protection mode?

A: The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 30° and the aircraft is 25° roll limited.

B: The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 45° and the aircraft is 25° roll limited.

C: The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 40° and the aircraft rolls wings level and pitches up to slow down to VMO/MMO.

D: The autopilot disengages, bank angle limit is 35° and the aircraft rolls wings level and pitches to 10° to slow down to VMO/MMO - 20 kt.

Q 51: What is the maximum flap setting for in-flight  use of the spoilers?

A: Flaps FULL.

B: Flaps 3.

C: Spoilers are not approved for in-flight use.

D: Flaps 10.

Q 52: What are the rudder trim rates?

A: A/P on - 5 deg/sec, A/P off - 1 deg/sec.

B: A/P on - 2 1/5 deg/sec, A/P off - 5 deg/sec.

C: A/P on - 3 deg/sec, A/P off - 6 deg/sec.

D: A/P on - 5 deg/sec, A/P off - 6 deg/sec.

Q 53:  Can the crew make a flight control input that will over-stress the airplane in direct law?

A: No. The system is designed to avoid such an attempt.

B: Yes, there are no protections provided in direct law.

Q 54: Can you manually trim the rudder with the autopilot engaged?

A: Yes.

B: No.

Q 55: When is the Flight Mode active?

A: From takeoff until landing.

B: From liftoff until landing

C: From liftoff until flare mode engages at 50 ft RA.

D: From takeoff until passing 50 kts on landing (main shock absorbers depressed)

Q 56: Automatic pitch trim is provided both on ground and in flight.

A:  True.

B: False.

*Note - It is only active where aircraft is in flight.

Q 57: The Ground Mode is different in Alternate Law.

A: True.

B: False.

*Note - It is the same as in Normal Law.

Q 58: In normal law, what is the maximum bank angle you can reach with the side stick fully deflected?

A: 33°

B: 49°

C: 67°

D: 70°

Q 59: Failure to retract the flaps after takeoff will:

A: Activate the wing tip brakes.

B: Result in automatic flap and slat retraction at 210 kts.

C: Result in automatic flap and slat retraction at 220 kts.

D: Result in automatic flap retraction at 210 kts.

Q 60: FAC generated slat and flap extension, retraction, and limiting speeds are visually displayed on which of the following?

A: The MCDU perf page.

B: The lower ECAM F/CTL page.

C: Both pilot’s PFD airspeed displays.

D: All of the above.

Q 61: Aileron droop may best be confirmed by checking which of the following?

A: The position of the ailerons on the exterior preflight inspection.

B: The lower ECAM FLT/CTL page.

C: The position of the flap handle.

Q 62: The wing tip brakes are:

A: Pneumatically actuated.

B: Electric brakes.

C: Hydraulically actuated.

D: Mechanically controlled, hydraulically actuated.

Q 63: Selection of flaps 1 in flight will select which of the following configurations?

A: Slats 1 and flaps 1 (1+F).

B: Slats 0 and flaps 1 (0+F).

C: Slats 1 and flaps 0 (1).

D: Slats 1 and flaps 5 (1+F).

Q 64: The aircraft rudder can be manually trimmed with the autopilot engaged.

A: True.

B: False.

Q 65: What happens if you release the stick at 40 degrees of bank?

A: The bank stays at 40°

B: The aircraft rolls back to 25°

C: The aircraft rolls back to 33° and resumes flight path stability.

D: The aircraft rolls back to a bank angle less than 29°.

Q 66: When is alpha floor not available?

A: Out of normal law.

B: Below 100 feet RA in landing configuration.

C: If the A/THR is deactivated or unavailable.

D: All of the above.

Q 67: What kind of protections are provided if the aircraft is in Alternate Law?

A: G-load protection with a reduced factor.

B: Speed Stability

C: Full G load protection and speed stability

D: G-load protection and speed stability if the ADIRS and elevators are working.

Q 68: In Normal Law, what are the limits of Pitch Attitude protections with flaps Full

A: 30° nose up.

B: 35° nose up progressively reduced to 20°

C: 25° nose up, progressively reduced to 20° at low speed.

D: There is no limit.

Q 69: You can degrade directly from Normal Law to Direct Law with gear down and a dual radio altimeter fault.

A: True.

B: False.

Q 70: When do you get FLARE Mode in Alternate Law?

A: Never. It goes directly from Alternate Law to Direct Law when the gear is selected down.

B: When selecting Flaps 1

C: At glide slope interception.

Q 71: Turn coordination is available in Alternate Law.

A: True.

B: False.

*Note - You get yaw damping only.

Q 72: If both pilots deflect their side sticks fully back:

A: The “pitch up” order is twice as high as with only one stick deflected.

B: The “pitch up” order is 1.5 times higher as high as with only one stick deflected.

C: No inputs are sent to the flight control computers unless one pilot presses the takeover pushbutton on his stick.

D: The “pitch up” order is equal to a single stick deflection.

Q 73: To disable a side-stick, you have to depress the red take-over button on the active stick. Holding the button down for 40 seconds will electrically lock the other stick out until its own red take-over button is pushed again.

A: True.

B: False.

Q 74: Let’s assume the F/O presses his takeover pushbutton and releases it after more than 40 seconds.

A: The Captain’s side stick is de-activated unless he presses his takeover pushbutton.

B: The Captain is unable to re-activate his side-stick for the rest of the flight

C: Both sticks are active

D: The Captain’s side stick is active as long as the F/O’s side stick is in neutral position.

Q 75: What condition will cause auto flap retraction?

A: Exceed 210 kts at Flaps 1

B: Exceed 190 kt at Flaps 1.

C: Exceed 195 kt at Flaps 1

D: Exceed 190 kt with Flaps 1 while extending the speedbrake lever.

Q 76: What happens to the rudder limits if both FAC’s fault?

A: The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 1 is selected.

B: The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 5 is selected.

C: The limit freezes at the fault condition until Flaps 1 is selected. Then it resets to the low speed limits for increased control.

Q 77: What happens to high speed (VMO/MMO) when you are in Alternate Law?

A: VMO is reduced to 320 kt and MMO minus 10 kt.

B: VMO is reduced to 330 kt and MMO minus 10 kt

C: VMO is reduced to 320 kt and MMO does not change.

D: There is no change.

Q 78: Can the rudders be moved with both FAC’s inoperative?

A: Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained when the slats are extended

B: Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained

C: Yes, if both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained when the gear is extended or flaps extended at 1 minimum

D: No,

Q 79: The FLAP lever sends signal to Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC) to command movement.

A: True.

B: False.

Q 80: Is there any rudder pedal feedback for the yaw damping and turn coordination functions?

A: Yes.

B: No.