Question Bank - Airbus A320

Landing gear

XVI of XVIII

Q 01: Which hydraulic system(s) supply pressure to the landing gear system?

A: Green

B: Blue

C: Yellow and Blue

D: Green and Blue.

Q 02: The braking modes are:

A: Green with anti-skid, Yellow without anti-skid, Parking brake.

B: Green or Yellow with anti-skid, Yellow without anti-skid, parking brake

C: Green with or without anti-skid, Blue without anti-skid

Q 03: If the brake system automatically transitions to alternate brakes with the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the ON position, which of the following will be available?

A: Auto brakes and anti-skid.

B: Only auto brakes.

C: Brakes, auto brakes, anti-skid.

D: Anti-skid.

Q 04: What is indicated by the autobrake DECEL lights?

A: Airplane deceleration is 25% of selected rate.

B: Airplane deceleration is 50% of selected rate.

C: Airplane deceleration is 100% of selected rate.

D: Airplane deceleration is 80% of selected rate.

Q 05: On the E/WD, you notice the NW STRG DISC memo. What does it mean?

A: The nose wheel steering has been disconnected by ground personnel.

B: A failure in the nose wheel steering system has been detected.

C: There is a discrepancy between the two nose wheel steering handwheel positions

D: The nose wheel steering computer has finished its self test.

Q 06: During pushback, you start engine #2. You observe the NW STRG DISC memo has changed to amber. Why?

A: The NW STRG disconnect mechanism has failed.

B: The yellow hydraulic system is now pressurized and the amber caption is a warning not to move the handwheel

C: The nose wheel steering is being reconnected by ground personnel. It is amber because the pin is removed.

D: The memo has become amber because one engine is running.

Q 07: Landing Gear position is indicated by:

A: One panel on center instrument panel, one panel on overhead panel

B: ECAM only

C: One panel on center instrument panel and ECAM

D: One panel on center instrument panel, ECAM, visual means on the wing.

Q 08: If the landing gear was gravity extended using the hand crank on the center pedestal, landing gear position must be verified through:

A: The landing gear viewers.

B: The landing gear indications depicted on the ECAM and, if available, the center panel LDG GEAR indicator panel lights.

C: Both are correct.

Q 09: Landing gear operation is inhibited at speeds:

A: Below 100 knots.

B: Above 260 knots  +/- 5 knots.

C: below 100 knots and above 260 knots.

D: Above 250 knots.

Q 10: Can the gear be extended above 260 kts if necessary?

A: Never.

B: Yes, but only manually

C: Yes, but the ultimate limit is 285 kt CAS

Q 11: How can the brake accumulator be re-pressurized?

A: With the yellow electric hydraulic pump.

B: With the blue electric hydraulic pump.

C: Both are correct.

Q 12: You are ready to taxi. You apply the toe brakes on the rudder pedals and release the PARK BRK. The BRAKES pressure falls to zero. What should you do?

A: This should not happen and you must assume that the BRAKES pressure indicator has failed.

B: Nothing as this is normal. The BRAKES pressure indicator only indicates alternate (yellow) brake pressure.

C: You must re-apply the PARK BRK and call for maintenance personnel as the main system pressure has failed.

D: The indication is normal because once the AUTO BRK is set to MAX the BRAKES indicator is by-passed.

Q 13: Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the nose wheel steering?

A: Green

B: Blue

C: Green and Blue.

D: Yellow.

Q 14: The anti deactivates when ground speed is less than ______.

A: 10 kts.

B: 20 kts.

C: 25 kts.

D: 30 kts.

Q 15: If the BSCU detects a brake system malfunction in flight with the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the ON position:

A: The crew will be notified with an ECAM message after touchdown if the brake system does malfunction.

B: The crew will be notified with an ECAM message.

C: The crew must manually select alternate brakes.

D: All of the above.

Q 16: What is required to arm the auto brakes?

A: Green hydraulic pressure available, anti-skid, no failures in the braking  system.

B: Landing gear lever selected down and selection of an autobraking rate.

C: Both are correct.

Q 17: What does each turn of the gravity gear extension handle do?

A: Open gear doors, unlock gear, drop gear.

B: Open gear doors, drop gear, shut doors.

C: Shutoff hydraulic pressure, open doors, unlock gear.

D: Open gear doors, shutoffs hydraulics, unlock gear, drop gear.

Q 18: How many turns are required on the gravity extension hand crank to extend the landing gear?

A: 2

B: 3

C: 5

D: 6

Q 19: How do you manually extend the landing gear?

A: Lift the red handle and turn anticlockwise 4 turns.

B: Lift the red handle and turn anticlockwise a minimum of 2 turns.

C: Lift the red handle and turn clockwise a minimum of 4 turns.

D: Lift the red handle and turn clockwise a 3 turns.

Q 20: If the Landing Gear was gravity extended using the hand crank on the center pedestal, what other systems will be inoperative?

A: Nose wheel steering and auto braking.

B: Nose wheel steering only.

C: Anti-skid and auto braking.

D: Nose wheel steering and anti-skid.

Q 21: Auto brake may be armed with the parking brake on.

A: True.

B: False.

Q 22: Can normal landing gear operation be restored after a gravity extension if green hydraulic pressure is available?

A: Restoration is always possible.

B: It may be possible if the gravity extension was not caused by a failure of the landing gear mechanism.

C: No, only maintenance can restore normal operation.

Q 23: When the landing gear is gravity extended, will nose wheel steering be available?

A: Only if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is selected ON.

B: No.

C: Limited nose wheel steering is available only through the captain’s rudder pedals.

Q 24: Auto brakes, if selected, will only be activated by:

A: The wheels spinning up.

B: The struts being compressed.

C: The brake pedals being depressed.

D: The ground spoiler extension command.

Q 25: There are two triangles for each gear on the ECAM WHEEL page. What do they represent?

A: Each triangle represents one wheel on the gear.

B: Each triangle represents the position detected by one of the two computers systems.

C: Each triangle represents one of the braking systems available for that gear.

D: The front triangle indicates the position of that gear and the back triangle indicates the status of the brakes for that gear.

Q 26: What system pressure does the ACCU PRESS and BRAKES pressure indicator indicate?

A: Yellow brake accumulator and yellow brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.

B: Yellow brake accumulator and green brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.

C: Yellow brake accumulator and green or yellow brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.

D: Blue brake accumulator and green brake system pressure to the left and right brakes.

Q 27: The normal brake system uses _____ hydraulic pressure and the alternate brake system uses _____ hydraulic pressure backed up by the hydraulic brake accumulator

A: Green – Blue

B: Yellow – Blue

C: Yellow – Green

D: Green - Yellow.

Q 28: Wheel page of ECAM: if you see a green arc shown over a wheel indication:

A: It marks the hottest brake with a temperature of more than 100°C.

B: It indicates an abnormal high temperature.

C: The A/SKID system is automatically releasing the pressure of that brake.

D: The L/G control system has detected a low tire profile.

Q 29: Nose wheels and main wheels have fusible plugs that prevent the tires from bursting if they overheat.

A: True.

B: False.

(Note: Only the main wheels)

Q 30: With the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch in the ON position, if the BSCU detects a brake system malfunction and/or normal braking is not available

A: The crew will be notified with an ECAM message only if after touchdown the brake system does actually malfunction.

B: Transition to the alternate brake system is automatic.

Q 31: You have just set the parking brake handle to ON. Is it still possible to check the main brake system using the toe brakes?

A: Yes. As soon as you press the brake pedals the BRAKES indicator will read main system pressure.

B: No. It is not possible to press hard enough to obtain an accurate reading.

***C: No. When the PARK BRK is set, the other braking modes are deactivated.

Q 32: If the accumulator on the alternate brake system is your only source pressure, which of the following will be available?

A: Auto brakes and antiskid.

B: Antiskid.

C: Seven applications of the brake pedals.

D: Three applications of the brake pedals

Q 33: The gear doors remain open after a manual extension.

A: True.

B: False.

Note: You have to expect decreased performance in the event of a go-around.

Q 34: The steering handwheels, which are interconnected, can steer the nose wheel up to _____ in either direction.

A: 55°.

B: 65°

C: 75°

D: 90°

Q 35: The green DECEL light on the autobrake pushbutton illuminates when the actual airplane deceleration corresponds to what percentage of the selected rate?

A: 80%

B: 90%

C: 92%

D: 95%

Q 36: Each main wheel has an antiskid brake.

A: True.

B: False.

Q 37: The parking brake accumulator is designed to maintain the parking pressure for at least ______.

A: 6 hours.

B: 12 hours.

C: 18 hours.

D: 24 hours.

Q 38: The autobrake will arm if at least one ADIRS is functioning

A: True.

B: False.

(Note: The system needs also:- Green pressure available.- electric power on antiskid- No failure in the braking system.)

Q 39: What happens to the other brake modes when parking brakes are applied?

A: There is no change.

B: All other braking modes and antiskid are deactivated.

C: Antiskid mode only is deactivated.

Q 40: Maximum speed for landing gear retraction is:

A: 200 kts

B: 220 kts

C: 235 kts

D: 250 kts

Q 41: Nose wheel steering is available when:

A: Gear doors open

B: All gear doors closed

C: The Push button on either steering hand wheel is depressed

D: Nose gear doors closed

Q 42: Nose wheel steering is controlled by:

A: LGCIU 1.

B: BSCU

C: LGCIU 2

D: LGCIU 1 or 2

Q 43: When is pressure in the nose wheel steering system shut off?

A: With towing lever in towing position or both engines are shut down or the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is OFF

B: During ground towing with one engine shut down or when aircraft speed is >60 kts

C: When the aircraft is on the ground with speed above 100 kts

Q 44: Hand wheel and pedals are operated simultaneously:

A: Hand wheel has priority

B: Pedals have priority (depending on speed)

C: BSCU transforms these orders into nose wheel steering angle (signals are mathematically added)

D: Hand wheel input will not be affected by pedals.

Q 45: Nose wheel steering by rudder pedals is limited to:

A: +/- 6 degrees under all conditions

B: +/- 75 degrees

C: +/- 90 degrees

D: Maximum +/- 6 degrees depending on aircraft speed

Q 46: When both hand wheels are operated simultaneously, the signals:

A: From the first pilot acting on his hand wheel have priority

B: Coming from the captain have priority

C: Are algebraically added

D: From the F/O have priority

Q 47: Nose wheel steering is available:

A: Aircraft speed below 70 kts, both engines (required to be) running, Towing lever in normal position, aircraft on ground.

B: Aircraft speed below 70 kts, both engines (required to be) running, Towing lever in normal position, aircraft on ground or in the air

C: Aircraft speed below 70 kts, one engine (required to be) running, Towing lever in normal position, aircraft on ground.

D: Aircraft speed below 70 kts, both engines (required to be) running), Towing lever in standby position, aircraft on ground.

Q 48: After T/O the left main landing gear shock absorber is stuck in the compressed position.

A: The gear can be retracted under all circumstances

B: The gear cab be retracted provided the nose gear is centered

C: The gear cannot be retracted, gear lever is blocked (interlock mechanism)

D: The gear can be retracted once the nose wheel steering is centered

Q 49: Is it possible (system wise) to lower the gear by gravity above 260 kts?

A: Yes

B: No

C: Yes, but only if green hydraulics available

D: Yes, but only if yellow hydraulic available

Q 50: System page “Wheel”. L/G position indicators (triangles), first line shows green triangles, second line behind shows amber crosses. Is the landing gear down?

A: Yes

B: No

C: Right hand gear only is down

D: Left hand gear only is down.

Q 51: During the approach you get master warning and ECAM “Gear Not Down”. The reason is:

A: Landing gear is not down locked and flaps 3 or full and both radio altimeters failed

B: Landing gear is not down locked, flaps at 3 and radio height lower than 750 ft

C: All of the above

D: None of the above.

Q 52: The alternate brake system uses:

A: The Yellow hydraulic system

B: The hydraulic accumulator

C:The Yellow hydraulic system and the hydraulic accumulator

D: The Blue electric pump.

Q 53: The antiskid system gets its reference speed from:

A: The ADIRS

B: A wheel tachometer

C: The LGCIU’s

D: The BSCU’s

Q 54: The principle of the anti-skid is:

A: Comparing the speed difference between the four wheels

B: Comparing wheel speeds with aircraft reference speed

C: Comparing wheel speeds between left and right landing gear

D: Comparing left and right wheel speeds on the same landing gear.

Q 55: Following failure of all 3 ADIRS, is antiskid available?

A: Yes

B: No

C: Only with Yellow hydraulics

D: Only with Green hydraulics

Q 56: Alternate braking using the Yellow system. Autobrake is:

A: Lost

B: Still available with anti-skid

C: Still available without anti-skid

D: Still available provided Yellow system hydraulic pressure is available.

Q 57: Autobraking is initiated by:

A: Reverse thrust selection

B: Nose gear oleo compression

C: Main gear oleo compression

D: Ground spoilers extension

Q 58: The brake & Accumulator pressure gauge shows pressure from:

A: The Yellow hydraulic system

B: The Accumulator only

C: The Green hydraulic system

D: Both Yellow brake system and the Brake Accumulator

Q 59: Max braking has been selected. Takeoff being aborted, engines in reverse, you have forgotten to arm the ground spoilers. Is autobrake activated?

*A: No because spoilers will not deploy if not armed

*B: Yes, provided speed is less than 72 knots

*C: Yes, but only if Yellow hydraulic pressure is available

*D: Yes, because spoilers will still deploy.

Q 60: The Hot light on the brake fan pushbutton illuminates when brake temperature reaches:

A: 250 deg.C

B: 300 deg.C

C: 350 deg.C

D: 400 deg.C

Q 61: On wheel page of ECAM, Autobrake is flashing green. What does it mean?

A: Autobrake is disengaged

B: Autobrake failure

C: Anti-skid failure

D: Autobrake in operation

Q 62: On the ramp with APU running, park brake is set on, message on ECAM memo shows Park Brake.

A: In Green

B: In Yellow

C: In White

D: In White or Yellow

Q 63: The landing gear indicator panel receives the information from micro switches and proximity detectors connected to:

A: BSCU

B: LGCIU 2

C: LGCIU 1

D: BSCU and LGCIU 2

Q 64: The red arrow, near the landing gear lever illuminates when:

A: Landing gear is not up locked after retraction

B: Landing gear is in abnormal position

C: Landing gear is in transit

D: Landing gear is not down locked in approach configuration

Q 65: Landing gear indicator panel UNLK light illuminates red if

A: Gear is extended by gravity and doors are not closed

B: Gear is extended normally and doors are not closed

C: Gear is not locked in selected position

D: Gear is not selected down by 1,000 ft RA.

Q 66: The maximum speed with landing gear extended (VLE) is:

A: 260 kts / M.65

B: 280 kts / M.67

C: 300 kts / M.70

D: 320 kts / M.72

Q 67: Which ADIRS close the safety valve of the green hydraulic supply when speed is > 260 kts.

A: ADIRS 1 & 2

B: ADIRS 1 & 3

C: ADIRS 2 & 3

D: ADDIRS 2 or 3

Q 68: What is the maximum tyre speed?

A: 185 kts

B: 195 kts

C: 205 kts

D: 225 kts

Question Bank - Airbus A320

Oxygen

XVII of XVIII

Q 01: On which ECAM page could the flight crew check the exact pressure of the oxygen cylinder?

A: The PRESS page.

B: The DOORS page.

C: The COND page.

D: The STATUS page.

Q 02: What is indicated by a missing green thermal plug during an exterior preflight?

A: An oxygen system overpressure or thermal discharge.

B: This is normal indication, the green thermal plug  only appears if the oxygen cylinder is low.

C: The crew oxygen bottle is empty.

D: An external fire discharge has been activated.

Q 03: Approximately how long are the passenger oxygen generators able to produce oxygen?

A: 15 minutes.

B: 20 minutes.

C:25 minutes.

D: 30 minutes.

Q 04: What is the main difference between the crew and the passenger oxygen system?

A: There is no difference: both are served by oxygen  cylinders.

B: Crew is supplied from an oxygen cylinder;  passengers are supplied by chemical oxygen generators .

C: Both the crew and passengers are supplied with oxygen from chemical oxygen generators.

D: The crew has an oxygen bottle for an emergency back-up supply.

Q 05: What is the purpose of the CREW SUPPLY push button?

A: When selected to ON, it supplies oxygen to the Captain & F/O only (jumpseats are not supplied)

B: When selected to ON, it allows the flow of low pressure oxygen to the crew’s masks.

C: In case of low cylinder pressure it allows the  crew to tap into the passenger oxygen system.

Q 06: What happens when the mask is used with the selection at 100% position?

A: Mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand.

B: Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen on demand.

C: Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen continuous flow.

D: Mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand.

Q 07: At approximately what cabin altitude should the passenger oxygen masks drop?

A: 10,000 feet (+100, - 500 ft)

B: 12,500 feet (+ or - 500 ft)

C: 14,000 feet (+0, - 500 ft)

D: 15,000 feet.

Q 08: What does an amber OXY on the ECAM Doors mean?

A: The crew supply switch is turned off and/or oxygen pressure is less than 400 psi.

B: The crew supply switch is turned off

C: Oxygen pressure is less than 650 psi.

D: Oxygen pressure is less than 300 psi.

Q 09: Illumination of the SYS ON light is an indication that:

A: The crew must depress the MASK MAN ON pb in order  to deploy the masks.

B: Electrical power has been sent to deploy the  masks, either manually or automatically.

C: The crew oxygen cylinder is empty.

D: All of the passenger masks have deployed.

Q 10: There are oxygen generators in each aircraft’s galley.

A: True.

B: False.

Q 11: What will depressing the guarded MASK MAN ON pb accomplish?

A: A signal is sent to the chemical oxygen generators to start the flow of oxygen to the masks.

B: It manually sends a signal to open the oxygen mask doors.

C: Both are correct.

Q 12: When does passenger oxygen flow start?

A: When the mask is pulled toward the seat.

B: When the oxygen doors open.

C: When the oxygen button is pushed.

D: When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 ft'

Question Bank - Airbus A320

Pneumatic

XVIII of XVIII

Q 01: Engine bleed air temperature is controlled by:

A: Engine oil.

B: A pre-cooler that uses fan air.

C: Conditioned air from the mixing unit.

Q 02: If BMC1 fails BMC2 takes over all monitoring functions except:

A: Engine 1 and APU leak detection.

B: Overheat detection.

C: Automatic crossbleed valve control.

Q 03: Bleed air normally comes from the _______ of the engine.

A: High pressure stage.

B: Intermediate stage.

C: Low pressure stage.

Q 04: In flight if the air pressure is insufficient even with the HP valve open:

A: The engine spools up automatically.

B: Engine power has to be increased by the pilot.

C: Push the High Pressure P/B on the ovhd panel.

Q 05: The pressure regulating and shutoff valve will close if _______ pressure is _______ or _______ airflow occurs

A: Downstream / low / reverse

B: Downstream / High / reverse

C: Upstream / low / reverse

Q 06: The crossbleed valve has two electric motors; one for the automatic mode and one for the manual mode:

A: True

B: False

Q 07: The overheat detection system uses a single loop for:

A: The pylons and APU.

B: The wings and pylons.

C: The wings and fuselage.

Q 08: The APU BLEED FAULT light illuminates amber for an APU:

A: Overheat.

B: Malfunction.

C: Bleed leak.

Q 09: The AUTO position of the X BLEED selector opens the crossbleed if:

A: An engine bleed valve is open.

B: The APU bleed valve is open.

C: When engine start is selected.

Q 10: Recirculation fans in the air conditioning system direct filtered cabin air to which area?

A: The pneumatic duct; upstream of the packs.

B: The avionics compartment.

C: The Mixing unit.

Q 11: Temperature regulation for the A320 is controlled by:

A: One zone controller and two pack controllers.

B: Two pack controllers and the BMC’s.

C: The BMC’s

Q 12: Should both channels fail in a zone controller:

A: Temperature optimization is still available for that zone from another controller.

B: Temperature optimization and the backup mode are lost.

C: The pack is not affected.

Q 13: The lavatory/galley extract fan operates:

A: Only on the ground.

B: Only in flight.

C: Continuously when electrical power is available.

Q 14: If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails; pack flow will go to what rate?

A: Low.

B: Medium.

C: High.

Q 15: What happens to the outflow valve when the RAM AIR switch is selected ON?

A: The outflow valve opens immediately.

B: The outflow valve opens if cabin differential pressure is less than 1 psi.

C: Normal outflow valve control is maintained.

Q 16: When either the BLOWER or EXTRACT switches are in OVRD; air from the air conditioning system is added to ventilation air.

A: True.

B: False

Q 17: How many motors are available for the outflow valve?

A: 1

B: 2

C: 3

Q 18: Transfer between the two cabin pressure controllers is:

A: Accomplished with a switch overhead.

B: Automatic after landing or in case the operating controller fails.

C: Automatically at each takeoff.

Q 19: The maximum cabin descent rate is limited in automatic to:

A: 300 ft/min.

B: 750 ft/min.

C: 1000 ft/min.

Q 20: The third motor (manual) in the pressurization system is activated:

A: Automatically if both automatic motors fail.

B: In sequence after each landing.

C: When the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL switch is positioned to MAN.

Q 21: When the cabin vertical speed exceeds _______ fpm; the vertical speed display on ECAM _______.

A: 800 / flashes green

B: 2800 / flashes green

C: 1800 / flashes green

Q 22: The pneumatic system supplies high pressure air for:

A: Air Conditioning, water pressurization and engine starting

B: Wing anti-icing.

C: Hydraulic reservoir pressurization.

D: All of the above.

Q 23: High pressure air has ______ sources.

A: 2

B: 3

C: 4

D: 5

(Note: Three Sources of HP air are -Engine bleed systems, APU load compressor and HP ground connection.)

Q 24: With both engines operating, an ENG BLEED pb FAULT light will illuminate when:

A: The valve position differs from that of the push button.

B: The X BLEED selector is selected to SHUT.

C: The X BLEED selector is selected to OPEN.

D: The X BLEED selector is selected to OPEN or to SHUT.

Q 25: Air bleed from the engines is:

A: Not cooled prior to being used by the systems.

B: Cooled in a heat exchanger by cooling air bleed from Fan section.

C: Cooled using ambient air.

D: Only cooled in air conditioning part.

Q 26: If a Bleed Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails:

A: All systems associated with the failed BMC also fail.

B: The associated bleed valves close.

C: The remaining BMC will automatically assume most of the failed BMC’s functions.

Q 27: A leak detection system detects any overheating in the vicinity of hot air ducts.

A: True.

B: False.

Q 28: When engine and wing anti-ice are in use, and a BMC detects a bleed leak:

A: Only the engine anti-ice on the associated side will be lost.

B: The wing and engine anti-ice on the associated side will be lost.

C: The wing anti-ice on the associated side will be lost, and the engine anti-ice on the associated side will continue to function.

Q 29: Each bleed valve is electrically operated and controlled pneumatically by its associated BMC.

A: True.

B: False.

(Note - Each bleed valve is pneumatically operated and controlled electrically by its associated BMC.)

Q 30: If a BMC detects a bleed leak:

A: The crew must isolate the affected leak.

B: All valves that could supply pneumatic air to the area of the bleed leak will automatically close.

C: All pneumatic valves close automatically.

Q 31: If one BMC fails, the adjacent BMC takes over the monitoring of the bleed system to issue the following ECAM warnings if necessary:

A: Overpressure

B: Overtemperature

C: Wing leak

D: All of the above.

Q 32: Bleed leak protection for the APU pneumatic duct is provided by:

A: Detection loops associated with BMC #1.

B: Detection loops associated with BMC #2.

C: The APU BMC.

D: All of the above.

Q 33: With the loss of pneumatic system pressure, the engine bleed valve will:

A: Remain in its current position.

B: Assume the mid position.

C: Assume the open position.

D: Assume the closed position.

Q 34: Pneumatic system operation is controlled and monitored by:

A: One bleed monitoring computer.

B: Two bleed valve computers.

C: Two bleed monitoring computers.

Q 35: ECAM BLEED page: when is the GND symbol displayed?

A: Whenever the aircraft is on the ground.

B: All the time.

C: Only when a ground air supply is connected.

Q 36: In automatic mode, the crossbleed valve opens when the system is using APU bleed air.

A: It closes if the system detects an air leak (except during engine start).

B: It closes if the system detects an air leak (except in flight).

C: It closes automatically if the system detects an air leak.

Q 37: What happens when pressure and temperature are not sufficient to supply the corresponding engine bleed valve?

A: HP valve closes.

B: HP valve opens, if stage closed.

C: HP valve opens, IP stage remains in the same configuration.

Q 38: When additional pneumatic air is required for anti-ice, engine starting, or air conditioning:

A: Additional pneumatic air will be requested by the BMC to the FADECs or the APU.

B: The crew must observe minimum N1 limits.

C: Both are correct.

Q 39: When selected, APU bleed air:

A: Will supply bleed air only if the ENG BLEED pb’s are selected OFF.

B: Has priority over engine bleed air.

C: Will supply bleed air only if the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN.

D: Does not have priority over engine bleed air.

Q 40: With the APU running, the APU BLEED push button selected ON and the X BLEED selector to AUTO, the APU will:

A: Only supply bleed air to the left side.

B: Supply pneumatic air to both sides of the aircraft because the pneumatic crossbleed valve automatically opens.

C: Will supply bleed air only to the left side unless the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN.

D: Only supply bleed air to the right side.

Q 41: Which source controls the crossbleed valve?

A: Pneumatic.

B: Electric.

Q 42: The crew may directly control the following bleed valves:

A: Engine, engine high pressure, APU.

B: Engine, intermediate pressure, APU.

C: Engine, APU, crossbleed.

D: Crossbleed.

Q 43: APU bleed air supplies the pneumatic system if the APU speed is above _____:

A: 80%

B: 85%

C: 92%

D: 95%

Q 44: A check valve near the crossbleed duct protects the APU when bleed air comes from another source:

A: True.

B: False.

Q 45: Following an ENGINE 1 BLEED FAULT, why can you only use one pack if Wing Anti Ice (WAI) is on?

A: Only one user can be supplied via the X BLEED duct.

B: Only ENG BLEED system cannot supply 2 packs and WAI.

C: If you use WAI, the X BLEED valve is automatically closed. Therefore, pack 1 will no longer be supplied.

D: One engine bleed system can either supply both packs or one pack plus WAI.

Q 46: Temperature regulation is achieved by the precooler which regulates and limits the temperature at:

A: 150°C

B: 85°C

C: 60°C

D: 200°C

HAPPY LANDINGS!

Question Bank - Airbus A320

Equipment

VIII of XVIII

Q 01: You want to open the cabin door, whilst lifting the control handle the white light illuminates. What does it mean?

A: There is residual pressure in the cabin.

B: The ramp is not correctly positioned.

C: The slide is still armed.

D: Somebody is trying to open the door from outside.

Q 02: Which situation will automatically illuminate the escape path lighting?

A: The loss of power to the DC ESS SHED bus and The loss of power to the AC bus #1

B: The loss of power to the AC ESS SHED bus and The loss of power to the AC bus #1

C: The loss of power to the AC ESS SHED and the loss of power to the DC ESS SHED

D: The loss of power to the AC ESS SHED

Q 03: When the door arming lever is in the ARMED  position, opening the door from the outside will:

A: Automatically deploy and inflate the evacuation slide.

B: Disarm the door.

C: The power assist will rapidly open the door.

Q 04: With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, if AC bus #1 is unpowered:

A: The escape path markings will automatically illuminate.

B: The emergency lights and exit signs will illuminate automatically.

C: Both are correct.

Q 05: Opening an emergency overwing exit will:

A: Inflate the slide at the leading edge of the wing.

B: Automatically inflate the double lane slide off the trailing edge of the wing.

C: Only arm the overwing slide.

Q 06: Although no busses are unpowered, illumination of emergency exit lights in the cabin is desired. Which of the following answers are correct?

A: The emergency lights, exit signs and the floor paths markings will illuminate if the guarded EMER EXIT LT pb on the flight attendant CIDS panel is selected ON.

B: The emergency lights, exit signs and the escape path markings will illuminate if the cockpit EMER EXIT LT switch is  ON.

C: Both are correct.

Q 07: The PBE provides a breathable atmosphere for approximately ______ minutes.

A: 10

B: 15

C: 16

D: 18

Q 08: What are the indications that the PBE oxygen supply has depleted?

A: The hood collapses to the point that it touches  your face or by a flashing red light in addition to the flashing green light.

B: The sound of the oxygen flow stops and flashing red and green lights appear.

C: No 02 supply indications, & lights only indicate time.

D: All of the above.

Q 09: How is crew oxygen provided?

A: From a single bottle.

B: There is one bottle per crew member except for jumpseaters

C: Oxygen generator.

D: One oxygen bottle with an oxygen generator.

Q 10: What cockpit lighting is available during an Emergency Electrical Configuration (EEC)?

A: All lights are fully functional.

B: Dome lights, main panel flood lights, and the standby compass light.

C: Dome light (right side only), main panel flood vlights, and the standby compass light.

D: Dome light(right side only), main panel flood lights (left two columns only), and the standby compass light.

Q 11: On the cockpit overhead panel there is a three position EMERGENCY EXIT LT switch. What lights are associated with this switch?

A: Exit signs, emergency lights, and floor path lights.

B: Exit signs, emergency lights, main panel flood lights, and floor path lights.

C: Exit signs, emergency lights, dome lights, main  panel flood lights, and the standby compass light.

D: Exit signs,  and the standby compass light.

Q 12: What is Crew Oxygen minimum pressure, where can it be read?

A: 850 PSI, ECAM DOOR/OXY page.

B: 950 PSI, gauge on the bottle.

C: 1000 PSI, gauge on the bottle.

D: 1300 PSI, ECAM DOOR/OXY page.

Q 13: There is no other way of deploying the overwing escape slide if it fails to deploy automatically on opening the emergency exit.

A: True.

B: False.

(Note - If it fails to deploy automatically the overwing escape slide can be deployed using the red manual inflation handle in the overwing exit.)

Q 14: What does HORN SHUTOFF on the EVAC panel do?

A: Cancels the EVAC alert

B: Silences EVAC signals throughout the cabin  and cockpit.

C: Silences Horn in cockpit.

D: None of the above.

Q 15: The HALON fire extinguisher should be used on  what type fires?

A: Electrical fires only.

B: Electrical and burning metals.

C: Electrical and flammable liquid fires.

D: Electrical and ordinary combustibles.

Q 16: With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, if DC shed bus #1 is unpowered:

A: The escape path markings will automatically illuminate.

B: The emergency lights and exit signs will illuminate automatically.

C: Both are correct.

Q 17: Once activated, how can you cancel the EVAC alert from the cockpit?

A: OFF switch.

B: Only able to deactivate from cabin (#1 Flight attendant).

C: COMMAND switch.

D: HORN SHUT OFF.

Budget boost for Aviation Sector !?!?

The Finance Minister today announced measure that could help the aviation sector in India. I am no expert in economics but indicators show that this budget might provide much needed temporary relief. The Union Budget 2012 will allow ailing the Airlines to get working capital upto $1 billion per year through External Commercial Borrowing (ECB). This would especially be useful for Air India and Jet Airways who have about 55%-60% of ticket revenue in dollars. The trick however is to not get carried away as loans would accrue interest in dollars. The banks have been reluctant to loan to aviation sector therefor the loan conditions could cause more CAT for the sector.
One very good move in the budget is the allowance of import of Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) by Airlines directly. This will allow airlines to negotiate better fuel rates and reduce tax burdens. Since jet fuel is one of the greatest contributors towards aviation costs, this will significantly increase airline range.

There is no immediate decision on Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) or Foreign Airline Stakes (upto 49%) but is under consideration.

So in a nut shell the ATF direct ourchase will boost the sector but ECB will have little or temporary impact. This is a welcome start and maybe smarter economic minds can share further inputs on the same.

Finally the elephant in the room: Kingfisher Airlines may see a little positive impact from this budget. The investment of USD 1 billion maybe too little or too late for KFA to turn around. The budget could offer just enough working room for Dr Mallaya to spin his magic and turn things around for Kingfisher Airlines. Wishing him all the best with that.

Stock update: KFA stock has risen slightly pre and post budget

Good news for foreign travelers is that custom limit has increased from 25,000 to 35,000 which now translates to approximately USD700 (from USD500)

Airbus A320 Question Bank 1-9 of 18

The big post was making it extremely difficult to update and manage. Have uploaded all the question under separate topics. Hope that works... All the updates should be up and running by tomorrow 28th December '2013...  Please do leave comments for correction or updates to the question bank...

Recommendations in the DGCA Report on system of Examination and Licensing of personnel

John F Kennedy --- "We choose to go to the Moon in this decade and do the other things, not because they are easy, but because they are hard.".

I choose to start this blog with a quote that inspired a generation to land a man on the moon and bring him safely back. An arduous task undertaken by a generation less advance in terms of technology and having to do a task more difficult than one at hand.

Anyways back to earth and to aviation in India.

There is a lot of activity happening in the DGCA around the personnel licensing and examination.

The latest in the series of events is the report on System of examination and licensing of personnel.

The report link: http://dgca.nic.in/reports/Report_Lic.pdf

The report aims to address a lot of issues faced by candidates appearing the exam. These issues include frequency of exams, online or offline, paperwork verification, cheating, fraudulent logging of hours, validity of examinations, syllabus and question banks etc.
The following are the with comments from yours truly:
Recommendations from DGCA report on system of examination and licensing of personnel:

Recommendation 1: The Committee considers that examination conducted by CEO is part of the licensing process and should have the responsibility to initiate some of the processes which are presently being undertaken by the Licensing Directorate.
Processes involving verification of basic qualification should therefore be initiated by CEO at the time of issue of Computer No. so that the same is completed by the time the candidate becomes eligible for issue of licence.

Blogger Comment: More power to CEO and the verification at the time of issue of computer number could expedite license issue.

Recommendation 2:
In this regard, the Committee makes the following recommendations:
1. DGCA should adopt computerization of all the activities related to the examination including online registration for examination, allotment of roll number, scheduling of examination dates, conduct of online/ computer-based examination, processing and declaration of result.
2. DGCA has already taken initiative for recommendation at S. No. 1 above, should therefore go in examination in a phased manner starting with ATPL exam.
3. In order to avoid instances of impersonation during conduct of examination, verification of the candidate's identity by use of biometrics is suggested.

Blogger Comment: Brilliant step, I think its a great move. We could use Biometric and maybe tie it with UID.

Recommendation 3:
The Committee reviewed the preparation of software application by NIC in this regard and makes the following recommendations:
1. In ideal situation, the best option would be to have an end-to-end solution wherein software application and infrastructure for conduct of computer based examination is provided by one agency.
2. Since at present NIC is already in advanced stages of preparing the software application, DGCA should opt for hiring of infrastructure of an agency for conducting examination using the software application prepared by NIC.
3. In future, DGCA should consider outsourcing the entire examination system, subject to all security precautions being ensured. In this regard, DGCA should review the examination system being followed internationally by various regulatory authorities.

Blogger Comment: Brilliant step, I think its a great move. I could suggest pearson vue or some other reputed examination conduction firm.

Recommendation 4:
The validity of two and a half years and five years was considered to be adequate, however, the Committee observed that a candidate should be given the flexibility to appear for examination as per dates of his choice as is done in most of other countries. To be able to do this, the present system of paper examination needs to be discontinued and online computer based examination introduced. Further, DGCA should consider placing restrictions on the number of attempts for appearing in the pilot examination.

Blogger Comment: I wont get tired of saying this going online is a great move.

Recommendation 5: DGCA should also make available the list of study material for the students.

Blogger Comment: This has been missing for a while and am glad is now being looked into.

Recommendation 6:
1. The Committee recommends that the question bank needs to be enhanced.
2. While framing questions, DGCA should ensure that they are strictly as per the laid down syllabus.
3. DGCA should prepare a question bank containing large number of questions. An ideal ratio of 1:10 is suggested.
4. The questions should be properly vetted to prevent subsequent objections from examinees.

Blogger Comment: This has been missing for a while and am glad is now being looked into. This will be a very good start towards a transparent fair system of examination.

Recommendation 7:
The Committee recommends that the result processed in CEO is electronically merged with the DTL records.

Blogger Comment: A centralized database with multi-location back-ups is the way forward. A welcome recommendation.

Recommendation 8: In order to speed up the process, the Committee,considering that the examination by CEO is part of the license process recommends that such verification is initiated at the time of allotment of Computer No.

Blogger Comment: The verification at the time of issue of computer number could expedite issue of license. Good move.

Recommendation 9: The Committee considering that only such persons who have an aptitude for flying, come into the profession recommends that an entry level examination is taken prior to giving admission. Further the committee recommends that such examination should cover an aptitude and a psychometric test. These tests may be conducted by the proposed agency who would conduct the examination on behalf of DGCA in future (Recommendation 3) and till such an agency is setup/identified,by IGRUA.

Blogger Comment: I am not sure how i feel about this one. I understand a need for candidates with aptitude for flying and all, but this could hamper hobby flying etc (would it be required for those interested in only PPL???). The introduction of an external agency to conduct any additional tests adds to the complications. We will wait to see how this pans out.

Recommendation 10: The Committee recommends that provision for acquiring/obtaining flying experience directly from the flying institutes is considered. Further, DGCA should explore the possibility of bringing the movements of training aircraft of various flying clubs online. Such monitoring of the aircraft of all the flying clubs will minimize manipulation of log books.

Blogger Comment: Again not sure about this one. I feel this one is a bit ambitious. In theory its a great idea to bring in transparency, however, the amount of data to be processed and stored is too much Will have to wait and see as it unfolds.

Recommendation 11: The Committee considered that the root cause of unfair means adopted by pilots was their repeated failures in the written examinations. The Committee felt that there is a need to create state-of-the-art training facilities in the country for pilots and aircraft maintenance engineers.

Blogger Comment: hmmm root cause is debatable. The introduction of training centres is a welcome move. It will also help standardise tution centers giving candidates more option. Will have to wait for implementation.

Recommendation 12: The Committee based on the above factors and after detailed deliberations recommends that a unified data base for licensing of personnel (pilots, AME and ATCOs) should be developed. The comprehensive licensing system should include:
a) Minimum human interface;
b) Interface with examination and medical;
c) Interface with other agencies vis-a-vis flying training institutes and airlines for obtaining information pertaining to movement of aircraft, their maintenance, actual time flown and other related data directly.
d) Use of digitized pilot log book. Introduction of bio-metric identification systems.
e) Introduction of smart card license with a microchip, having all details of the license holders.

Blogger Comment: A centralized database with multi-location back-ups is the way forward. A welcome recommendation. Sounds like a super DGCA

In conclusion:
There are some really good ideas that can be immediately implemented and some great ideas are harder to implement and sustain. The implementation would be the key that will decide the fate of future candidates. The centralisation of power to CEO is a good move but needs to be overlooked closely to avoid abuse of the same. These implementation would be considerable difficult as it will require a lot of effort to reshape the entire system. It is possible though and if we can take inspiration from teh words i borrowed from the late US president we wont take less than a decade to implement them. All the Best DGCA


Feel free to share your comments on opinions....

DGCA Pilot License Exam Results

Pilots License Exam January 2009 - April 2011
Session	Download link
Apr-11	Result Link
Jan-11	Result Link
Oct-10	Result Link
Jul-10	Result Link
Apr-10	Result Link
Jan-10	Result Link
Oct-09	Result Link
Jul-09	Result Link
Apr-09	Result Link

The following website allows you to look at your past results and also offers a result matrix.

The result search tool